One of the best resources to prepare for the exams is to solve these CBSE Class 10 Geography Important Questions we have compiled here. Students will find it easier to revise the subject with the help of these questions. These CBSE Class 10 important questions of Geography cover all the essential topics from the chapters of the NCERT books, based on which the exam papers are formulated.

Students can find and download the chapter-wise CBSE Important Questions of Geography from the respective links provided in the table below:

Question 1. What do you understand by a ‘Resource’? Give examples. (2015) Answer: Everything available in our environment which can be used to satisfy our needs, is called a resource. It should be technologically accessible, economically feasible and culturally acceptable. Only then, it can be termed as a ‘Resource’. Examples are: minerals, forests, fossil fuels etc..

Question 2. “Resources are a function of human activities.” Justify this statement. Answer: Mere presence of resources, as free gifts of nature, does not make them resources. Human beings are essential components of resources because they transform material available in our environment into resources. The utility of resources depends on the stage of cultural development of man and the tools and technology used by him.

Question 3. Write the classification of resources on four different bases. (2015) Answer: Resources can be classified in the following four ways: (a) On the basis of Origin:

(b) On the basis of exhaustibility:

(c) On the basis of ownership:

(d) On the basis of status and development:

Question 4. Explain the classification of resources on the basis of origin and give one example of each. Answer: On the basis of origin, resources can be classified as Biotic and Abiotic. Biotic Resources are obtained from the biosphere. They have life or are living resources, e.g., human beings, fisheries, forests, etc. Abiotic Resources include all non-living things, e.g., rocks and minerals.

Question 5. Classify the resources on the basis of exhaustibility and give two examples of each. Answer: On the basis of exhaustibility, resources can be classified as: Renewable and Non-renewable.

Renewable Resources. The resources which can be renewed or reproduced by physical, chemical and mechanical processes are known as renewable or replenishable resources, e.g., water, wildlife, forests, solar energy, wind energy etc.

Non-renewable Resources. The resources which once get exhausted, cannot be remade. They take a long geological period of time, i.e., millions of years in their formation, e.g., minerals, fossil fuels etc.

Question 6. Write two types of renewable resources and give one example of each type. Answer: Two types of renewable resources are as follows:

Question 7. Write two characteristics of non-renewable resources and write their two broad categories with examples. Answer: Two characteristics of non-renewable resources:

Two broad categories of non-renewable resources:

Question 8. Give any two examples of non-renewable resources. (2015) Answer: Non-renewable resources are resources which once get exhausted, cannot be remade. They take a long geological period of time, i.e., millions of years, in their formation, e.g., minerals, fossil fuels, etc.

Question 9. Explain four types of resources based on ownership and give one example of each type. (2014) Answer: On the basis of ownership, there are four types of resources:

Question 10. Distinguish between the following: 1. Potential and Developed Resources; 2. Stock and Reserves. Answer: 1. Potential Resources. Resources which are found in a region, but have not been utilised, e.g.r Gujarat and Rajasthan have a lot of potential for the development of wind and solar energy, but so far they have not been developed fully. Developed Resources. Resources which are surveyed and their quality and quantity have been determined for utilisation. The development of resources depends on technology and level of their feasibility, e.g., water resources used for hydel power generation or irrigation purposes.

2. Stock. Materials in the environment, which have the potential to satisfy human needs but man does not have the appropriate technology to access them are included among stock, e.g. water is a compound of two inflammable gases: hydrogen and oxygen, which can be used as a rich Source of energy. But we do not have the required technical know-how to use them for this purpose. Reserves. Reserves are the subset of the stock, which can be put into use with the help of existing technical ‘know-how’ but their full use has been postponed for meeting the future needs, e.g., forest reserves, iron-ore reserves, water in the dams etc.

Question 11. Name the categories under which natural resources can be grouped on the basis of state of development. Answer:

Question 12. How are natural resources important for man? Give five points. Answer: Importance of resources for man:

Question 13. List the problems which resulted due to indiscriminate use of resources by man. Answer:

Question 14. “Resource planning is essential for sustainable existence.” Discuss. Answer: Sustainable existence is a component of sustainable development which aims at development without damaging the environment and at the same time conserving for future generation. Therefore, resource planning is necessary for judicious, rational and equitable distribution and proper utilisation of resources. It has become essential for a sustained quality of life and global peace.

Question 15. What do you understand by ‘sustainable economic development’? Answer: Sustainable economic development means that ‘development should take place without damaging the environment and development in the present should not compromise with the needs of future generation.’

Question 16. Why is ‘Resource Planning’ necessary? Give reasons. Answer: Planning is necessary for proper and judicious utilisation of resources. Reasons for resource planning:

Question 17. “India has enormous diversity in the availability of resources.” Name four varied regions to justify this statement. Answer: There are regions which are rich or self-sufficient in certain types of resources and there are areas that are deficient or have acute shortage of some vital resources. For example:

Question 18. Explain three stages of ‘resource planning.’ (2015) Answer: Three stages of resource planning:

Question 19. “Planning is the widely accepted strategy for judicious use of resources in a country like India”. Justify this statement with two relevant points and an example. (2013) Answer: India has enormous diversity in the availability of resources. Through planning, regions which have shortage of vital resources and those having adequate quantities, receive equal attention.

Question 20. Write four factors which determine resource development in a region. Answer: Four factors involved in the development of resources are:

Question 21. What do you understand by ‘conservation of resources’? Why is it necessary to conserve our resources? Give three reasons. Answer: Conservation is judicious and planned use of natural resources for sustainable benefit to the present generation. It also maintains a potential to meet the needs and aspirations of future generations. Three reasons for conservation:

Question 22. Explain the concept of resource conservation as voiced by Gandhiji. (2012) Or Whom did Gandhiji make responsible for the depletion of resources at the global level? Answer: Gandhiji voiced his concern about resource conservation in these Words: “There is enough far everybody’s need and not for anybody’s greed.” He placed the greedy and selfish individuals as the root cause for resource depletion at the global level. He was against ‘mass production’ and wanted to replace it with ‘production by the masses’.

Question 23. Write four institutional efforts made at global level for ‘resource conservation’. Answer:

Question 24. Write the major features of Rio de Janeiro Earth Summit, 1992. Answer:

Question 25. “The future generation may not have sufficient resources as compared to the present generation”. Justify the statement by giving suitable examples. (2012) Or Why is the issue of sustainability relevant for development? Answer: Present sources of energy in India are coal, petroleum, natural gas, solar energy, wind energy, hydel power, electricity, wood for fire, cow dung etc. Most of these are non-renewable sources of energy which may get exhausted after some time. These are available in limited quantities. The present rate of consumption is higher than the rate at which these resources are being replenished and should be preserved for our future generations.

In fifty years’ time, India may depend largely on non-conventional sources of energy which are available in abundance such as solar energy, hydel energy, wind energy etc. The total hydel power potential in India is estimated at 1,50,000 MW of which only one-sixth has been developed so far.

Question 26. Why is land as a resource important for us? Write four points. Answer:

Question 27. Why land-use should be done in a planned manner? Write two points. Answer:

Question 28. Look at the picture and name three major relief features of India and their respective share in the total area. Answer: Three major relief features: 1. Plains — 43% 2. Mountains — 30% 3. Plateaus — 27%

Question 29. Name the relief feature occupying the largest area, along with its percentage share in the total area. Answer: Plains occupy the largest area having 43% share in the total area.

Question 30. Name three main relief features of India and write the importance of each. Answer:

(iii) because of their level, nature and ease of construction, plains support huge population of the country.

(iii)    are important from ecological point of view, e.g. have lot of forest wealth and wildlife.

(iii)    possess rich forest cover.

Question 31. Look at the picture and explain the land-use pattern in India. Why has land under forest not increased much since 1960-61? Answer: The major land-use categories and their percentage share is:

The land under forests has increased marginally by about 4.46%. From 18.11% in 1960-61, it is still only 22.57% which is far lower than the desired 33% as outlined by the National Forest Policy (1952). Reasons for marginal increase in forest area:

All these exert great pressure on land thus causing further depletion of forests.

Question 32. Distinguish between each of the following: (a) Current fallow and other than current fallow land (b) Waste-land and culturable waste-land (c) Net sown area and gross cropped area. Answer: (a) Current fallow land. Land left without cultivation for one or less than one agricultural year. Other than current fallow land. Land left uncultivated for the past one to five agricultural years. (b) Waste land. It includes rocky, arid and desert areas which are lying waste at the moment. Culturable waste land. Arable land which is left uncultivated for more than five agricultural years. (c) Net Sown Area. It is the total area under cultivation. Gross Cropped Area. Area sown more than once in an agricultural year plus net sown area.

Question 33. What do you understand by ‘reported area’? What is the reported area of India and why? Give two major reasons. Answer: The percentage of total area for which land-use statistics (data) are available, is termed as ‘reported area’. India’s reported area is 93%. Reasons:

Question 34. Write three physical and three human factors which determine the use of land. Answer: Physical Factors:

Question 35. Why are the other than current fallow-lands cultivated once or twice in about two to three years? Give two reasons. Answer: Two reasons are:

Question 36. “The pattern of net sown area varies greatly from one state to another.” Or Name two states having high net sown area and two states having low net sown area. Give two reasons for each. Answer: Punjab and Haryana are two states, which have more than 80% of their total area as N.S.A. (Net Sown Area) because:

States with low N.S.A. i.e., less than 10% are Arunachal Pradesh and Mizoram because:

Question 37. According to National Forest Policy, how much of the country’s area should be under forest cover and why? Give two considerations for this norm. Have we been able to meet this norm? Answer: According to National Forest Policy, 33% of the country’s total area should be under forest cover. Reasons:

We have 22.57% area under forests which is far lower than the desired 33% of geographical area, as outlined by National Forest Policy.

Question 38. What is land degradation? What is the area of degraded land in India? Name four types of waste-lands and their percentage share respectively. Answer: Damage to the land, bringing down its quality is called land degradation. Continuous use of land over a long period of time without taking appropriate measures to conserve and manage it, results in land degradation. India has 130 million hectares of degraded land. Four categories of waste-lands:

Question 39. Write six human activities which have caused land degradation. Answer:

Question 40. Which factor is mainly responsible for maximum land degradation in India? (2015) Answer: Over-grazing is one of the main reasons for land degradation. States where over-grazing has resulted in land degradation are Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra.

Question 41. Distinguish between biotic and abiotic resources by stating four points. Answer: Difference between biotic and abiotic resources

Question 42. Name three states each in which land degradation is caused due to

Question 43. Write some measures/ways to solve problems of land degradation. (2014) Answer: Measures to conserve land:

Question 44. What is soil? How is it an important resource for us? Answer: Soil is the uppermost layer of the earth’s crust which is loose, fragmented and fine. It is rich in both organic (humus) and inorganic materials and supports plant growth. Soil is a living system. It takes millions of years to form soil upto a few cm in depth. It is an important resource because:

Question 45. Write the main factors responsible for soil formation. Answer: Soil is a living system. It takes millions of years to form soil up to a few centimeters in depth. Factors responsible for soil formation are:

Question 46. Write four factors which are responsible for varied types of soils in India. Answer: Factors:

Question 47. On what basis are soils classified into different types? Answer: Basis of classification of soils:

Question 48. Name six types of soils found in India. Which is the most widely spread soil? Name one major region where it is found. Answer:

Alluvial soil is the most widely spread soil. The entire northern plains are made of alluvial soil.

Question 49. Write three regional/local names of areas where you find coarse alluvial soil and name one deltaic area which has fine alluvial soil. Answer: Coarse alluvial soil is more common in piedmont plains such as Duars, Chos and Terai. Fine alluvial soil is found in the eastern coastal plains in the deltas of Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna and Kaveri rivers.

Question 50. Classify alluvial soils on the basis of their age. Write two characteristics of each. Answer: According to their age, alluvial soils are of two types: Bangar and Khadar.

Question 51. Write the main characteristics of alluvial soils. Answer:

Question 52. Give the distribution of alluvial soils in brief. Answer: The entire northern plains are made up of alluvial soils.

Question 53. Write two factors which are responsible for the formation of black soils. Name four States where they are found. Name the crop mainly grown in it. Answer: Two factors are:

Four states in which black soils are found are: Maharashtra, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh. Black soil is ideal for growing cotton and is also called black cotton soil.

Question 54. Write six characteristics of regur soils (black soils). (2015) Answer:

Question 55. Give the distribution of black/regur Soil. (2015) Answer: This soil is typical of the Deccan Trap region.

Question 56. In what broad category do the soils of Maharashtra fall? (2014) Answer: Black soil region also known as regur soils.

Question 57. What is regur soil? Write its two features. Mention any two regions where regur soil is found. Answer: Regur soil is soil which is made up of extremely fine, i.e., clayey material. Features:

Regions where regur soil is found:

Question 58. Write the distribution of red and yellow soils. Give reasons for their colour. Or How does red soil develop and in which part of India? What makes it look red and yellow? Answer: In Eastern and Southern parts of Deccan plateau, red soils have developed on crystalline igneous rocks in areas of low rainfall. They are also found in parts of Orissa, Chhattisgarh, Southern parts of the middle Ganga Plains and along the piedmont zone of Western Ghats.

These soils develop a reddish colour due to diffusion of iron in crystalline and metamorphic rocks. It looks yellow when it occurs in a hydrated form.

Question 59. Write four characteristics of laterite soils. Why are they called laterite? Answer:

Question 60. Write six states which have laterite soils and name the important crops which grow well in these soils. Answer: Six states in which laterite soils are found: Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Madhya Pradesh and the hilly areas of Orissa and Assam. Crops which grow well in these soils are: tea, coffee and cashew-nuts.

Question 61. Write the main characteristics of arid soils. (2014) Answer:

Question 62. Write the main features of forest soils. What are the different types of soils found in the hilly forested areas? Answer: Forest soils are mainly found in the hilly and mountainous areas where sufficient rain forests are available. The soil texture varies according to the mountain environment where they are formed. At least four types of soils can be seen in the hilly forested areas:

Question 63. What is soil erosion? Write the main causes of soil erosion. Answer: The denudation of the soil cover and subsequent washing down is described as soil erosion.

The process of soil formation and erosion goes on simultaneously and generally there is a balance between the two. This balance is sometimes disturbed, leading to soil erosion. The main activities like deforestation, over-grazing, construction and mining and also natural agents like wind, running water and glacier are the main causes of soil erosion.

Question 64. Explain three types of soil erosion mostly observed in India. Mention human activities that are responsible for soil erosion. (2012) Answer:

Question 65. Write the land area degraded by gully erosion and name five states where gully erosion is very pronounced. Answer: Approximately 40 lakh hectares of land area has degraded due to gully erosion. Five states where gully erosion is quite pronounced are: Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Bihar, Rajasthan and Gujarat.

Question 66. Write four methods of soil conservation. Answer: Methods of soil conservation:

Question 1. Name four animals and two species of flora which are on the verge of extinction. Answer: Animals and plants on the verge of extinction: Four animals: Cheetah, pink-headed duck, mountain quail, forest spotted owlet. Two plants:

Question 2. Name six groups of flora and fauna under which they are classified by International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN). Answer:

Question 4. Name any four resources which are obtained from our biodiversity. Answer: The resources are: wood, rubber, medicines and dyes.

Question 5 Write four major reasons for the depletion of forest cover. Answer:

Question 6. Write three adverse impacts of dolomite mining in the Buxar Tiger Reserve on the ecosystem. Answer: Adverse effects of dolomite mining in the Buxar Tiger Reserve:

Question 7. List six factors which have led to the decline in India’s biodiversity. Answer:

Question 8. Write four most important causes of environmental destruction/degradation. Answer:

Question 9. “The destruction of biodiversity is highly correlated with the loss of cultural diversity.” Give four facts to support this statement. Answer: Such losses have:

Question 10. Why do we need to conserve our biodiversity? Answer: Conservation of biodiversity is necessary because it:

Question 11. List various provisions made by “The Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act 1972” for protecting habitats. Answer:

Question 12. Write four steps taken by the Government for conservation of wildlife. Answer: Five steps that have been taken to protect the wildlife in India:

Question 13. Which agency manages forests in India? Name three broad categories in which the forests are classified. Answer: The forests in India are owned and managed by the Government through the Forest Department. They are classified under the following categories:

Question 14. What are ‘Permanent Forest Estates’ and why? Which state has maximum forest cover falling under this category? Write its percentage share in the total forest area of this state. Answer: Reserved and protected forests are referred to as the Permanent Forest Estates maintained for the purpose of producing timber and other forest produce. Madhya Pradesh has the largest area under permanent forests, constituting 75% of its total forest area.

Question 15. Write the major differences between reserved and protected forests. Answer: Difference between Reserved and Protected forests

Question 16. Name five states which have large reserved and protected forests respectively.

Answer: Five states having large percentages of reserved forests are: Jammu and Kashmir, Andhra Pradesh, Uttrakhand, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, West Bengal and Maharashtra. Protected Forests: Bihar, Haryana, Punjab, Himachal Pradesh, Orissa and Rajasthan.

Question 17. What are unclassed forests? Name two areas which have high percentages of their forests as unclassed forests. Answer: Unclassed forests are the other forests and waste lands belonging to both Government and private individuals as well as local communities. Two areas with high percentage of unclassed forests are: North-Eastern states and parts of Gujarat.

Question 18. Write three examples of conservation of biodiversity at community level. (2025) Answer: Three examples of community participation:

Question 19. Explain the ‘Beej Bachao Andolan’ and ‘Navdanya’ concept. Answer: Farmers and Citizens’ groups like the Beej Bachao Andolan in Tehri and Navdanya have shown that adequate levels of diversified crop production without the use of synthetic chemicals are possible and economically viable.

Question 20. Write two characteristics of Joint Forest Management Programme and its two benefits for the community. Which Indian state started this programme first of all and when? Answer: Joint Forest Management Programme involves local communities in the management and restoration of degraded forests. It was first started in Orissa in 1988. Two characteristics: It depends on—

Question 21. What is biodiversity? Why is biodiversity important for human lives? Give three points. Answer: Biodiversity denotes variety of living beings, including all types of organisms, plants and wildlife, diverse in form and functions but closely integrated in a system through multiple network of interdependencies. Its importance: We humans along with all living organisms form a complex web of ecological systems in which we are only a part and are dependent on this system for our own existence. For example, the plants, animals and micro-organisms recreate—

Question 22. Write a brief note on ‘Project Tiger’. Answer: ‘Project Tiger’ was one of the well-published wildlife campaigns in the world, launched in 1973. Initially it had shown an increase in tiger population till 1989 but in 1993 the tiger population dropped. There are 27 tiger reserves in India covering an area of 37,761 sq km.

Tiger conservation has been viewed not only as an effort to save the endangered species but with equal importance as a means of preserving biotypes of sizeable magnitude. Corbett National Park, (Uttarakhand), Sundarbans National Park (West Bengal), Bandhavgarh National Park (Madhya Pradesh), Sariska Wildlife Sanctuary (Rajasthan) Manas Tiger Reserve (Assam) and Periyar Tiger Reserve (Kerala) are some of the reserves in India.

Question 23. Give an account of the forest cover in India. Answer: The dimensions of deforestation in India are staggering. The forest and tree cover in the country is estimated at 79.42 million hectare, which is 24.16% of the total geographical area (dense forest 12.2%; open forest 9.14%; and mangrove 0.14%). According to the State of Forest Report (2015), the dense forest cover has increased by 3,775 sq km since 2013. However, this apparent increase in the forest cover is due to conservation measures, management interventions and plantation, etc., by different agencies.

Question 24. Give an account of the Himalayan Yew highlighting its importance. Answer: The Himalayan Yew is in trouble. The Himalayan Yew (Taxuswallachiana) is a medicinal plant found in various parts of Himachal Pradesh and Arunachal Pradesh. A chemical compound called ‘taxol’ is extracted from the bark, needles, twigs and roots of this tree, and it has been successfully used to treat some cancers-the drug is now the biggest selling anti-cancer drug in the world.

The species is under great threat due to over-exploitation. In the last one decade, thousands of yew trees have dried up in various parts of Himachal Pradesh and Arunachal Pradesh.

Question 25. Give the main characteristics of the Asiatic Cheetah. Where has it gone? Answer: The world’s fastest land mammal, the cheetah (Acinonyxjubantus), is a unique and specialised member of the cat family and can move at the speed of 112 km./hr. The cheetah is often mistaken for a leopard. Its distinguishing marks are the long teardrop shaped lines on each side of the nose from the comer of its eyes to its mouth. Prior to the 20th century, cheetahs were widely distributed throughout Africa and Asia. Today, the Asian cheetah is nearly extinct due to a decline of available habitat and prey. The species was declared extinct in India long back in 1952.

Question 26. ‘33% of area should be under forests’. Justify the statement highlighting the environmental values of forests. Answer: Forest area in the country is far lower than the desired 33% of geographical area, as outlined in the National Forest Policy (1952). Forests are considered essential for maintenance of the ecological balance. The livelihood of millions of people who live on the fringes of these forests depend upon it.

Forests play a key role in the ecological system as these are also the primary producers on which all other living beings depend. The forest preserves the ecological diversity and our life support systems—water, air and soil. It also preserves the genetic diversity of plants and animals for better growth of species and breeding. The destruction of forests have marginalised and impoverished many indigenous forest dependent communities. The indirect impact of degradation is severe drought or induced floods. Poverty is a direct outcome of environmental destruction.

Question 27. Assess the need for the conservation of forests and wildlife in India. Answer: There is a need to conserve the forests and wildlife in India:

Question 1. Give some facts and figures about the water resources in the world. Answer:

Question 2. Explain how water becomes a renewable resource? Answer:

Question 3. What percentage of global precipitation does India receive? Answer: India receives nearly 4 per cent of the global precipitation.

Question 4. Where is India ranked in terms of water availability per person per annum? By what year will India join countries having absolute water scarcity? Answer: India ranks 133 in the world in terms of water availability per person per annum. By 2025, large parts of India will join countries having absolute water scarcity.

Question 5. Give an estimate of India’s renewable water resources. Answer: The total renewable water resources of India are estimated at 1897 sq km per annum.

Question 6. Write three sources of fresh water. Answer: Three sources are:

Question 7. What is water scarcity? Write the main reasons for water scarcity. (2015) Answer: Water scarcity means shortage of water. It is usually associated with regions having low rainfall or drought prone areas. There are many other reasons which lead to scarcity of water. These are:

Question 8. How intensive industrialisation and urbanisation have posed a great pressure on existing fresh water resources in India? Explain with two examples for each. (2012) Answer: Intensive industrialisation and urbanisation have put greater pressure on existing fresh water resources. With the ever growing number of industries, the demand for water has grown tremendously:

On the other hand, multiplying urban centres with:

Question 9. Write the adverse effects of over-exploitation of ground water resources. Answer:

Question 10. Write the main causes of water pollution. Answer: Water gets polluted by:

Question 11. What is the need for conservation of water resources? (2015) Answer:

Question 12. Write some measures adopted for conservation of water resources. (2015) Answer: Measures for water conservation:

Question 13. What were the different types of hydraulic structures constructed in Ancient India? Give examples. Answer: The different types of hydraulic structures were:

Question 14. How was water conserved in ancient India? Give any four examples in support of your answer. (2012) Answer: Archaeological and historical records show that from ancient times India has been constructing sophisticated hydraulic structures like dams, reservoirs, embankments and canals for irrigation.

Question 15. What is a dam? Describe the functioning of dams? On what basis are dams classified into different types? Answer: A dam is a barrier across flowing water that obstructs, directs or retards the flow, creating a reservoir, lake or impoundment. A dam is the reservoir and not the whole structure. Functioning: Most dams have a section called spillway or weir over which or through which, water will flow intermittently or continuously. Classification: Dams are classified according to structure, intended purpose or height.

Question 16. What is the main difference between traditional dams and modern dams? Answer: Traditionally dams were built to impound rivers and rainwater that could be used later to irrigate the agricultural fields.

Today, dams are referred to as multipurpose projects where many uses of the impounded water are integrated with one another. The main purposes served by these projects are irrigation, electricity generation, flood control, water supply for domestic and industrial use, fish breeding and tourism.

Question 17. Why are multipurpose river valley projects called ‘The Temples of Modern India’? Who first made this statement? (2014) Or Jawahar Lai Nehru proudly proclaimed the ‘dams as the temples of modern India’. Analyze this statement. (2013) Answer: Jawahar Lai Nehru proclaimed that multipurpose projects are ‘The Temples of Modern India’, because they were thought of as the vehicle that would lead the nation to development and progress. He believed that these projects with their integrated water resource management approach would integrate development of agriculture and the village economy with rapid industrialisation and growth of the urban economy.

Dams or multipurpose river valley projects have the following advantages:

Question 18. ‘Construction of dams on rivers has caused environmental degradation.’ Give reasons to support this statement. (2015) Answer:

Question 19. Multipurpose projects and dams have been the cause of many new social movements. Name two such social movements and write the underlying causes for these movements. Answer: Resistance to these projects came from social movements, e.g.,

Question 20. What are the social consequences of multipurpose projects? Or Multipurpose projects have transformed the social landscapes. Explain. Answer:

Question 21. Explain any three problems faced by local communities due to the construction of large dams. (2017, 2013) Answer: Problems faced by local communities due to the construction of large dams:

Question 22. Compare the advantages and disadvantages of multipurpose river valley projects. Answer: Advantages:

Question 23. What percentage of total electricity produced comes from hydro-electricity? Answer: 22 per cent of the total electricity produced is from hydro-electric power.

Question 24. Name two multipurpose projects and the rivers on which they are respectively situated. Answer:

Question 25. Give an example of an inter-state water dispute. Answer: Krishna-Godavari dispute. The Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh Governments objected to the diversion of more water at Koyna by the Maharashtra government for a multipurpose project as this results in reduction of downstream flow to Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh adversely affecting agriculture and industry in these States.

Question 26. Describe the traditional method of rainwater harvesting adopted in different parts of India. Answer: In ancient India, people developed wide-ranging techniques to harvest rainwater.

Question 27. Explain how rooftop rainwater harvesting in semi-arid regions of Rajasthan is carried out. (2012) Or Write the features of the ’tankas’ built in the houses of Bikaner, Phalodi and Barmer. Answer: ‘Rooftop rainwater harvesting’ was commonly practiced to store drinking water, especially in semi-arid and arid regions like Bikaner, Phalodi and Barmer in Rajasthan.

Question 28. Write how modem adaptations of traditional rainwater harvesting methods are being carried out to conserve and store water. Answer:

Question 29. Give a brief description of the ‘Narmada Bachao Andolan’. Answer: Narmada Bachao Andolan or Save Narmada Movement is an NGO (Non-Governmental Organisation) that mobilised tribal people, farmers, environmentalists and human rights activists against the Sardar Sarovar Dam being built across the Narmada river in Gujarat.

Question 30. Which village in Karnataka has earned the distinction of being rich in rainwater? Answer: In Gendathur in Mysore, Karnataka, nearly 200 households have installed rooftop rainwater harvesting system.

Question 31. Name the state which has made rooftop rainwater harvesting compulsory. Answer: Tamil Nadu has made rooftop rainwater harvesting structure compulsory for all houses across the state.

Question 32. When does water stress occur according to Falken Mark, a Swedish expert? Answer: Water stress occurs when water availability is less than 1000 cubic metre per person per day.

Question 33. Name the unique irrigation system prevalent in Meghalaya. Answer: Bamboo Drip Irrigation System.

Question 34. Name two states where rooftop rainwater harvesting is common practice. Answer: Shillong, Meghalaya.

Question 35. What is the present condition of Indian rivers? Answer: India’s rivers, especially the smaller ones have turned into toxic streams. Even the bigger ones like the Ganga and Yamuna are slowly getting polluted.

Question 36. Mawsynram is the region of highest rainfall, yet it faces acute water shortage. Why? Answer: Mawsynram faces acute water shortage because the rainwater harvested is not sufficient to meet the needs of the people.

Question 1. Write four points to stress the importance of agriculture in India. (2013) Or, Why is India called an agriculturally important country? Write four supportive arguments. Or, ‘Agriculture has been the backbone of the Indian Economy’ Explain the statement by giving reason. (2017 D) Answer: India is an agricultural country because of the following reasons:

Question 2. Why do farming practices vary in different regions? Give three major reasons. Answer: Three major reasons are:

Question 3. Name some industries based on agricultural raw material. Answer: Cotton Textile Industry and Sugar Industry.

Question 4. What factors does primitive subsistence farming depend on? Answer: Factors:

Question 5. Write main characteristics of ‘slash and burn’ agriculture. Or, Write main characteristics of Primitive Subsistence Farming. Answer:

Question 6. Name some primitive tools used in ‘slash and bum’ agriculture. Answer: Tools like hoe, dao and digging sticks.

Question 7. Compare ‘intensive subsistence farming’ with that of ‘commercial farming’ practiced in India. Answer:

Question 8. Write the main characteristics of intensive subsistence farming. Answer:

Question 9. What are the major differences between primitive subsistence farming and commercial farming? (2013) Answer:

Question 10. What is the most important characteristic of commercial farming? Answer: The main characteristic of commercial farming is the use of higher doses of modern inputs, e.g., high yielding varieties seeds (HYVs), chemical fertilizers and pesticides to increase productivity. The degree of commercialisation of agriculture varies from one region to another.

Question 11. Give an example of a crop which is commercial in one region and provides subsistence in another. (2012) Answer: Rice is a commercial crop in Haryana and Punjab, while in Odisha it is a subsistence crop.

Question 12. Name one type of agriculture which falls in the category of commercial agriculture. Write the main characteristics of this type of agriculture. (2012) Or Write six characteristics of plantation agriculture. Answer: Plantation agriculture is a type of commercial farming. Characteristics of plantation agriculture:

Question 13. Name one horticultural plantation crop and two beverage plantation crops and two States each which specialise in their production respectively. Answer: Horticultural plantation crop is apples, mainly grown in Himachal Pradesh and Jammu & Kashmir. Beverage crops:

Question 14. Name some important plantation crops. Answer: Tea, coffee, rubber, sugarcane and banana are examples of some important plantation crops.

Question 15. Name three cropping seasons of India. Write their sowing and harvesting time and major crops of each season. Answer: Rabi, Kharif and Zaid are the three cropping seasons.

I. Rabi crops (Winter crops): These are sown in winter from October to December. Harvested in summer from April to June. Important crops are wheat, barley, mustard, peas, gram etc.

II. Kharif crops (Crops of the rainy season): These are sown with the onset of monsoon (June-July) and are harvested in September-October. Important crops are rice, maize, millets, jowar, bajra, tur (arhar), moong, urad, cotton, jute, groundnut and soyabean.

III. Zaid season: It is a short cropping season during summer months (mainly between March-April and June-July in different parts of the country). Important crops are watermelon, musk melon, cucumber and fodder crops, etc.

Question 16. Where are rabi crops mainly grown? Describe the climatic conditions required for their growth. Answer: Rabi crops such as wheat and other crops are grown mainly in states from the north and north-western parts such as Punjab, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Jammu & Kashmir, Uttaranchal and Uttar Pradesh. Climatic conditions: Availability of precipitation during winter months due to western temperate cyclones help in successful growth. The green revolution has also been an important factor in the growth of rabi crops.

Question 17. Name some important rice growing regions of India. Answer: Assam, West Bengal, Coastal regions of Orissa, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Kerala and Maharashtra etc.

Question 18. Name three states which raise three paddy crops in a year. Name these crops also. Answer: Assam, West Bengal and Orissa grow three crops in a year. The crops are Aus, Aman and Boro.

Question 19. (a) Which is the most important food crop of India? What is its position in world production? Or, Name the food crop of Kharif season. What is India’s position in the world with regard to its production? (b) Write the rainfall and temperature requirements for the growth of this crop. (c) Name four major regions of rice cultivation. (d) Name four states which produce irrigated rice. Answer: (a) Rice is the most important food crop (Kharif crop) of India. India holds second position in rice production after China.

(b) For rice cultivation, high temperature of 25°C and above and high humidity with annual rainfall of 100 cms is required.

(c) Four major regions of rice cultivation are:

(d) Irrigated rice is produced in Punjab, Haryana, Western Uttar Pradesh and Rajasthan. Development of dense network of canals and tubewells has made it possible to grow rice in these states which receive less rainfall.

Question 20. (a) Which is the second most important cereal crop of India? Write the geographical conditions required for its growth. (b) Name two major zones of wheat growth and name six major states of wheat production. Answer: (a) Wheat is the second most important cereal crop of India. It is the main food crop. Geographical conditions:

(b) Two important wheat growing zones in India are:

The major wheat producing states are: Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh.

Question 21. Which is the third most important food crop of India? Name the cropping season in which it is grown. Name four leading states of its production. Answer: Jowar is the third most important food crop with respect to area and production. It is mainly the crop of Kharif season. It is a rainfed crop grown in moist areas. Leading states of production are: Maharashtra, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh.

Question 22. What are coarse grains? Why are they important in India? Name the crops which are included in this category and name three leading states producing each of these crops. Answer: Millets are called coarse grains. They are important because they have high nutritional value and make an important part of the diet for poor people. Most important millets are as follows:

Question 23. Write two geographical conditions required for the growth of Ragi and write its nutritional value. Answer: Geographical conditions:

Nutritional value: Ragi is rich in iron, calcium, other micro-nutrients and roughage.

Question 24. Mention two geographical conditions required for the growth of Maize crop in India. Describe three factors which have contributed to increase maize production. Write four major maize producing states. (2012) Answer: Geographical conditions required for the growth of maize crop in .India:

Question 25. (a) Name three pulses each of Rabi and Kharif season. Write their importance for human beings and for agriculture. (b) What is India’s position in the world with regard to the production of pulses? Name five leading states producing pulses. (2015) Answer: (a) Pulses of Rabi season: Tur (arhar), urad, moong. Pulses of Kharif season: Masur, peas, gram. Importance of pulses:

(b) India is the largest producer of pulses in the world. Major pulse producing states are: Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan, Maharashtra and Karnataka.

Question 26. (a) What is India’s position in the world regarding sugarcane production? Write the geographical conditions required for its growth. (b) Write the major states that produce sugarcane. (c) Name four products obtained from sugarcane. Answer: (a) India is the second largest producer of sugarcane after Brazil. Geographical conditions: It is a tropical as well as subtropical crop.

(b) Six major states producing sugarcane are: Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Punjab and Haryana.

(c) Sugarcane is the main source of sugar, gur (jaggery), khandsari and molasses.

Question 27. (a) What percentage of the total cropped area of India is under oilseed production? What is India’s position in the world with regard to oilseed production? (b) Name six oilseeds produced in India. What are their main uses? (c) Which oilseed constitutes 50% of the oilseeds produced in the country? Name three major states producing this oilseed. (d) Name three oilseeds of Kharif season and three of Rabi season. Answer: (a) India is the largest producer of oilseeds in the world. 12% of the total cropped area is under oilseed production

(b) Six major oilseeds produced in India are: Groundnut, mustard, coconut, sesamum (til), soyabean, castor-seeds, linseed, sunflower and cotton-seeds. Most of these oilseeds are edible and are used as cooking mediums. Some are also used as raw material in the production of soap, cosmetics and ointments.

(c) Groundnut is a Kharif crop and constitutes 50% share in the total oilseed production. Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Gujarat and Maharashtra are important producers of groundnut.

Question 28. Write the geographical and labour conditions required for the growth of tea. Answer: Geographical conditions:

Question 29. What is India’s position in the world regarding tea production? Name three states each which produce tea in: (i) North-Eastern India (ii) Himalayan states/parts of the states (iii) Peninsular States. Answer: India is the leading producer and exporter of tea in the world. Three states producing tea in each of the following:

Question 30. Which is the most important beverage crop of Southern India and what is its percentage share in the world? Where did its cultivation initially start in India? Name three major states of its production. Answer: Coffee is the most important beverage crop of Southern India. India produces about 4% of the world’s coffee production. Three major states which produce coffee are: Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu, mainly in Nilgiri Hills. Initially its cultivation started in Baba Budan Hills.

Question 31. Name a good variety of coffee which is produced in India and name the country from where it was initially brought. Why Indian coffee has great international demand? Answer: Arabica, the good variety of coffee was originally brought from Yemen. Indian coffee is in great demand because this coffee is of a very good quality.

Question 32. What is horticulture? (2012) Answer: Cultivation of fruits, vegetables and flowers is called horticulture.

Question 33. What is India’s position in the world in the production of fruits and vegetables? Name the different Indian fruits which are in great demand world over and also name the states where each is produced. Answer: India is the largest producer of fruits and vegetables in the world. Mangoes grow in Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh and West Bengal. Bananas grow well in Kerala, Mizoram, Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu. Oranges grow well in Nagpur and Cherrapunjee (Meghalaya). Lichi and Guavas grow in Uttar Pradesh and Bihar. Grapes grow well in Andhra Pradesh and Maharashtra. Pineapple grows well in Meghalaya. Apples, Pears, Apricots and Walnuts grow well in Jammu and Kashmir and Himachal Pradesh.

Question 34. Name four temperate fruits which are produced in India and name the states which grow them in abundance. Answer: Four temperate crops are: apples, pears, apricots and walnuts. Himachal Pradesh and Jammu & Kashmir are the leading producers of these temperate fruits.

Question 35. Describe India’s position in vegetable production. Answer:

Question 36. Name three non-food crops and write three major states of their production respectively. Answer: The three non-food crops are: rubber, cotton and jute. Rubber is produced in Kerala, Tamil Nadu and Karnataka, Andaman and Nicobar islands and Garo hills of Meghalaya. Cotton is mainly produced in Maharashtra, Gujarat and Madhya Pradesh. Jute is mainly grown in West Bengal, Bihar and Assam.

Question 37. Write the geographical conditions required for the growth of rubber. Name the item which consumes maximum share of rubber for its manufacture. Answer: Conditions:

Maximum rubber is consumed in the manufacture of auto tyres and tubes and cycle tyres and tubes. They together consume about 57.8% of the total rubber production.

Question 38. Name four major fibre crops grown in India. What is ‘sericulture’? Answer: Cotton, jute, hemp and natural silk are the four major fibre crops grown in India. The first three are derived directly from the crops grown in the soil, but silk is obtained from the cocoons of silk worms fed on mulberry leaves. Sericulture: Rearing of silk worms for the production of silk fibre is known as sericulture.

Question 39. Give an account of fibre crop which is mainly grown in Deccan Plateau region under the following heads: (i) Its position in the world production (ii) geographical conditions and (iii) major states of production. Answer: Cotton is the fibre crop which is mainly grown in the black soil of the Deccan Plateau region. (i) Position. India is the 3rd largest producer of cotton in the world. (ii) Geographical conditions. Cotton requires:

(iii) Major cotton producing states are. Maharashtra, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Punjab, Haryana and Uttar Pradesh.

Question 40. Which fibre crop is called as the ‘Golden fibre’? Which is the most important region of its growth and why? Give one major reason why it is losing the market now. Answer: Jute is known as the golden fibre. Jute is mainly grown in West Bengal, especially in the Hooghly Basin because there the geographical conditions favour its growth. These conditions are:

Question 41. Name the major jute producing states and list some items or products made out of jute. Answer: Jute producing states are: West Bengal, Bihar, Assam, Orissa and Meghalaya. Jute products are: gunny bags, ropes, mats, carpets, yarns and other ornamental artefacts.

Question 42. Give the main reasons which have necessitated agricultural reforms. Answer: Reforms in agriculture are necessary because of the following reasons:

Question 43. What are ‘Institutional Reforms’? Enlist various institutional reforms taken by the Indian Government to bring about improvements in agriculture. (2015) Answer: Institutional reforms: Steps taken by the government to bring about improvements in agriculture are termed as ‘Institutional Reforms’. Some steps are:

Question 44. Describe some concerted efforts made by the government to modernise Indian agriculture and improve its share in the GDP. Answer: The following measures have been taken by the government to modernise agriculture and improve its share in the GDP:

Question 45. “The contribution of agriculture to national economy is on the decline.” Write five facts to support this statement. Or, What is the contribution of agriculture to national economy, employment and output? Is it declining or encouraging? Answer: Contribution of agriculture is showing a declining trend:

Question 46. What are the challenges being faced by Indian farmers? What has this resulted in? Answer: Challenges faced by Indian farmers:

Question 47. Define each of the following: (a) Green Revolution (b) White Revolution (c) Yellow Revolution (d) Blue Revolution (e) Gene Revolution. Answer: (a) Green Revolution. Agricultural Revolution which resulted in increased production of foodgrains because of the use of HYV (High Yielding Varieties) seeds, fertilizers, proper irrigation and other modem inputs. (b) White Revolution. Revolutionary increase in the production of milk which was spearheaded by Operation Flood. (c) Yellow Revolution. Increase in the output of oilseeds is termed as Yellow Revolution. (d) Blue Revolution refers to increased output of fish and fish products. (e) Gene Revolution refers to the development of genetically modified seeds for increasing the yield per hectare. These seeds are environmentally sustainable.

Question 48. Write four drawbacks of green revolution. Answer:

Question 49. (a) Give four reasons why Indian farmers should switch over from cereals to high value crops’ cultivation. (b) What will be the implication of this change? Name three countries which have successfully done this. Answer: (a) Indian farmers should switch from cereals to high value crops because of the following reasons:

Question 1. Define the term ‘mineral’. Answer: Geologists define mineral as a “homogeneous, naturally occurring substance with a definable internal structure.” They have physical and chemical properties by which they can be identified.

Question 2. Define the term ‘rock’. Answer: Rocks are combinations or aggregates of minerals in varying proportions. Some rocks consist of a single mineral, e.g., limestone while most rocks consist of several minerals.

Question 3. Define the term ‘ore’. Answer: The term ‘ore’ is used to describe an accumulation of any mineral mixed with other elements.

Question 4. Name the finest quality of iron ore.(2011 D) Answer: Magnetite is the finest quality of iron ore.

Question 5. Orissa is the leading producer of which mineral?(2011 OD) Answer: Manganese ore.

Question 6. Name one fossil fuel which is considered environment friendly.(2012 D) Answer: Natural gas.

Question 7. Which is the main source of energy in India?(2012 D) Answer: The main source of energy in India is fossil fuels especially coal.

Question 8. In which non-conventional source of energy is India referred to as a super power?(2013 D) Answer: Wind Power.

Question 9. Which mineral is formed by decomposition of rocks, leaving a residual mass of weathered material ? Answer: Bauxite

Question 10. Name the state where the largest wind farm cluster is located? (2014 D) Answer: Tamil Nadu.

Question 11. In which State are the ‘Balaghat’ Copper mines located?(2014 D) Answer: Madhya Pradesh.

Question 12. Which is the most abundantly available fossil fuel in India? Name its four major forms.(2014 D) Answer: Coal;

Question 13. Which rock consists of a single mineral only? (2015 D) Answer: Limestone consists of a single mineral only.

Question 14. How do minerals occur in sedimentary rocks ? (2015 OD) Answer: In sedimentary rocks a numbers of minerals occur in beds or layers. They have been formed as a result of deposition, accumulation and concentration in horizontal strata. For example, coal, iron ore.

Question 15. Why are there a wide range of colours, hardness, crystal forms, lustre and density found in minerals? (2016 D) Answer: A mineral that will be formed from a certain combination of elements depends upon the physical and chemical conditions under which the mineral forms. It is because of these physical and chemical conditions that minerals possess a wide range of colours, crystal forms, lustre and density.

Question 16. How do minerals occur in igneous and metamorphic rocks? (2016 D) Answer: In igneous and metamorphic rocks, minerals may occur in cracks, crevices, faults and joints.

Question 17. How do minerals occur in sedimentary rocks? (2016 D) Answer: In sedimentary rocks a number of minerals occur in beds or layers. They have been formed as a result of deposition, accumulation and concentration in horizontal stratas.

Question 18. Why should the use of cattle cake as fuel be discouraged? (2016 OD) Answer: Using dung cake or cattle cake as fuel is being discouraged because it consumes most valuable manure which could be used in agriculture.

Question 19. How are ‘Gobar gas plants’ beneficial to the farmers? (2016 OD) Answer: “Gobar Gas Plants” are beneficial to the farmers in the form of energy and improved quality of manure.

Question 20. Where is the largest solar plant located in India?(2009 OD) Answer: The largest solar plants located at Madhapur near Bhuj in Gujarat.

Question 21. Name the industry which uses limestone as its main raw material.(2010 D) Answer: Cement industry.

Question 22. How is energy an indispensable requirement of our modem life? Explain with three examples. (2011 D) Answer: Modern life is highly governed by technology and revolves around it. Modem technology is driven by energy and is highly automated. Every sector of National economy — agriculture, industry, transport and commerce need greater inputs of energy. In the domestic sector also, energy demands, in the form of electricity, are growing because of increasing use of electric gadgets and appliances. Energy is the basic requirement for economic development.

Question 23. Mention any three characteristics of ferrous group of minerals found in India.(2011 D) Answer: Metallic minerals that have iron in them are called ferrous minerals. For example, iron ore, manganese, nickel, cobalt etc. Three characteristics of ferrous group of minerals found in India are:

Question 24. Why is there a pressing need to use non-conventional sources of energy in India? Explain any three reasons. (2011 D) Answer:

Question 25. Make a distinction between hydroelectricity and thermal electricity stating three points of distinction. Or What are the two main ways of generating electricity? How are they different from each other. Explain. (2011 OD, 2014 OD) Answer: Electricity is generated mainly in two ways:

Question 26. “Minerals are an indispensable part of our lives.” Comment. (2011 OD) Answer: Almost everything we use, from a tiny pin to a towering building or a ship, all are made from minerals. All means of transport are manufactured from minerals and run on power resources derived from the earth. Even the food that we eat contains minerals. Human beings have used minerals for their livelihood, decorations, festivities and in all stages of development.

Question 27. Mention any three major iron-ore belts of India. Write any three characteristics of the southern most iron-ore belt. (2012 D) Answer: The three major iron-ore belts of India are as follows:

Bellary-Chitradurga-Chikmaglur-Tumkur belt is the southern most iron-ore belt.

Question 28. Classify energy resources into two categories. Give two examples of each. (2012 D) Answer: Energy resources can be classified as conventional and non-conventional sources. Conventional sources include—firewood, cattle-dung cake, coal, petroleum, natural gas, etc. Non-conventional sources include—solar, wind, tidal, geothermal energy and biogas.

Question 29. Differentiate between metallic and non-metallic minerals with examples. (2013 D) Answer:

Question 30. Differentiate between ferrous and non-ferrous minerals with examples. (2013 D) Answer: Ferrous minerals:

Question 31. Explain the use of petroleum as an energy resource and as an industrial raw material. (2011 OD) Answer: The use of petroleum as a source of energy:

The use of petroleum as an industrial raw material:

Question 32. Distinguish between conventional and non-conventional sources of energy. (2013 D) Or Classify energy resources into two categories. Give two examples of each. (2014 OD) Answer: Energy sources can be classified as conventional and non-conventional sources.

Question 33. Explain any three steps to be taken to conserve the energy resources. (2011 OD) Answer:

Question 34. What is the use of manganese? Name the largest manganese-ore producing state of India. (2012 D) Answer: Manganese is mainly used in the manufacturing of the following items:

Odisha (Orissa) is the largest producer of manganese-ore in India.

Question 35. Why is energy required for all activities? How can energy be generated? Explain. (2014 D) Answer: Energy is needed to cook, to provide light and heat, to propel vehicles and to drive machinery in industries. Energy is a basic requirement for economic development. Every sector of the national economy—agriculture, industry and transport—commercial and domestic needs inputs of energy. Energy can be generated from fuel minerals like coal, petroleum, natural gas, uranium and from electricity. Conventional sources like firewood and cattledung cakes are most commonly used in rural India to generate energy.

Question 36. ‘Environmental degradation has been seen everywhere/ Explain any three values that can help to prevent environment degradation. (2014 D) Answer: Three values that can help to prevent Environmental Degradation:

Question 37. Which is the most abundantly available fossil fuel in India? Mention its different forms. (2015 OD, 2014 OD, 2008) Answer: The most abundantly available fossil fuel is Coal. There are four types of coal:

Question 38. How is the mining activity injurious to the health of the miners and environment? Explain. (2015 D) Answer: Adverse effect on health: The dust and noxious fumes inhaled by miners make them vulnerable to pulmonary diseases. The risk of collapsing mine roofs, inundation and fires in coal mines are a constant threat to miners. Adverse effects on the environment:

The water sources in the region get contaminated due to mining.

Dumping of slurry and waste leads to degradation of land, soil and increase in stream and river pollution. Stricter safety regulations and implementation of environmental laws are essential to prevent mining from becoming a ‘killer industry’.

Question 39. In the present day energy crisis what steps will you like to take for saving energy? (2015 D) Or Why is energy needed? How can we conserve energy resources? Explain. (2015 D) Answer: Energy is required for all activities. It is needed to cook, to provide light and heat, to propel vehicles and to drive machinery in industries.

We have to adopt a cautious approach for the judicious use of our limited energy resources. So conservation of energy should be done at all levels. Increased use of renewable energy resources, e.g., solar energy, hydel power, etc. We, as concerned citizens can help conserve energy in the following ways:

Question 40. How can solar energy solve the energy problem to some extent in India? Give your opinion. (2015 OD) Or Why does solar energy have a bright future in India? Answer: Reasons:

Also use of solar energy will minimise the dependence of rural households on firewood. It will contribute to environmental conservation and reduce pressure on conventional sources of energy.

Question 41. ‘Consumption of energy in all forms has been rising all over the country. There is an urgent need to develop a sustainable path of energy development and energy saving/ Suggest and explain any three measures to solve this burning problem. (2016 OD) Answer: Every sector of the national economy—agriculture, industry, transport, (commercial and domestic), needs greater inputs of energy.

With increasing population and changing lifestyles energy consumption is increasing very fast. We are not self sufficient in energy according to demands. Therefore we have to adopt a cautious approach for the judicious use of our limited resources. Conservation of energy should be done at all levels. Three measures to reduce consumption of energy in all forms:

Question 42. What are the main types of formations in which minerals occur? Answer: Minerals generally occur in the following forms:

Question 43. Why is there a pressing need to use renewable energy resources in India? Explain any five reasons. (2013 OD) Answer:

Question 44. How is energy a basic requirement for the economic development of the country? Explain with examples. (2013 OD) Answer: Reasons:

Question 45. Why is it necessary to conserve mineral resources? Suggest any four ways to conserve mineral resources. (2013 OD, 2012 OD, 2017 OD) Or Explain the importance of conversation of minerals. Highlight any three measures to conserve them. (2016 OD) Answer: Conservation of minerals is necessary because of the following reasons:

Question 46. “There is an urgent need to develop a sustainable path of energy development.” Give two broad measures for it. As concerned citizens, how can you help conserve energy? (2012 D, 2011 OD) Answer: Two broad measures to develop a sustainable path of energy development are:

Question 47. Highlight the importance of petroleum. Explain the occurrence of petroleum in India. (2016 D) Or Which is the next major source of energy after coal in India? Describe any three advantages of it. (2017 OD, 2008) Answer: Importance of Petroleum in India:

Occurrence of Petroleum in India:

Question 48. ‘Energy saved is energy produced.’ Assess the statement. (2017 D) Answer: Energy saved is energy produced. We cannot keep on producing non-renewable resources like petrol, diesel and electricity. So the need of the hour is the better utilization of existing resources. Energy depletion has become a global phenomenon at present time. The biggest problem that man has to face in near future is the energy crisis.

The demand of energy is growing manyfold in the form of coal, oil, gas or electricity but the energy sources are becoming scarce and costlier. Nearly 97% of the world’s consumed energy is coming from fossil fuels, coal, petroleum and natural gas. Among the various strategies for meeting energy demand, the efficient use of energy and its conservation is the best solution . Following are some measures to conserve energy resources:

Question 1. What is manufacturing? To which sector of economy does it belong? Or “The economic strength of a country is measured by the development of manufacturing industries”. Support the statement with arguments. (2016 D) Answer: Manufacturing. Production of goods in large quantities after processing from raw materials to more valuable products is called manufacturing. Manufacturing belongs to secondary sector in which the primary materials are processed and converted into finished goods. The economic strength of a country is measured by the development of manufacturing industries.

Question 2. Write the importance of ‘manufacturing sector’ for our nation. Or, “Manufacturing industry is considered the backbone of economic development of India.” Give reasons. (2015 OD, 2011 D) Answer: Importance of manufacturing industries for India:

Question 3. “Agriculture and industry are not exclusive of each other, but move hand in hand.” Give arguments in favour of this statement. (2013 D) Or, Explain with examples how industries in India have given a major boost to agriculture. (2015 D, 2012 OD) Answer: Agriculture and industry in India are inseparable or interdependent on each other:

Question 4. Write the contribution and present growth rate of manufacturing sector in national economy. Suggest measures to increase the industrial growth rate. (2011 OD) Answer: The share of manufacturing sector has stagnated at 17% of GDP. The trend of growth rate over the last decade has been around 7% per annum. Since 2003, it has shown an increased growth rate of 9-10% per annum. The desired growth rate over the next decade is 12%. To attain this target, following steps can be taken:

Question 5. List the major factors which affect the location of an industry at a place. What is the key to the decision of ‘factory location’? (2011 D, 2011 OD, 2015 D) Answer:

Question 6. “Industrialisation and urbanisation go hand in hand.” Explain. Answer: After an industrial activity starts, urbanisation follows. Some industries are located in and around the cities. Thus industrialisation and urbanisation go hand in hand. Cities provide markets, services such as banking, insurance, transport, labour, consultants and financial advice, etc. to industries.

Question 7. What are ‘agglomeration economies’ in the industrial context? Answer: Many industries tend to come together to make use of the advantages offered by the urban centres known as ‘agglomeration economies’. Gradually, a large industrial agglomeration or clustering takes place around an urban centre.

Question 8. State any five basis on which industries are classified. Answer:

Question 9. Classify industries on the basis of capital investment. How are they different from one another? Explain with examples. (2016 D) Answer: On the basis of capital investment industries can be classified as:

Difference: If the investment is more than one crore rupees in any industry, it is considered as a large scale industry. For example, Iron and Steel industry, Cement industry. If the investment is less than one crore rupees in any industry, it is considered as a small scale industry. For example, Plastic industry, Toy industry.

Question 10. Classify industries on the basis of source of raw material. How are they different from each other? (2016 OD) Answer: On the basis of sources of raw material industries are classified as: (i) Agro based industries; (ii) Mineral based industries Difference between Agro-based industries and Mineral-based industries

Question 11. Explain the types of industries on the basis of ownership and give one example of each. Answer: Four types of industries based on ownership are:

Question 12. Name four agro-based and four mineral-based industries. Answer: Four Agro-based industries are cotton textile, jute textile, sugar industry and edible oils industry. Four Mineral-based industries are iron and steel industry, aluminium industry, copper smelting industry and cement industry.

Question 13. Explain the role of agro-based industries in Indian economy. Answer: Role of agro-based industries in Indian economy:

Question 14. Explain the significance of textile industry in India. (2011 D) Or The textile industry is the only industry which is self reliant and complete in the value-chain? Justify this statement? (2016 D) Or “Textile industry occupies a unique position in the Indian economy”. Support the statement with appropriate arguments. (2015 D) The Textile industry occupies a unique position in the Indian Economy because:

Question 15. Write the stages of the development of cotton textile industry in India from ancient to modern times. Answer: Stages of development of Cotton Textile Industry in India:

Question 16. List factors which favoured the location and concentration of cotton textile industry in Maharashtra and Gujarat in early years. (2012 D, 2015 OD) Answer:

Question 17. Write two major differences between the weaving and spinning sectors of cotton textile industry. Answer:

Question 18. Name the main countries to which India exports its cotton yarn and cotton goods. Answer: The major countries are: Japan, USA, UK, Russia and France.

Question 19. What are the problems faced by the cotton textile industry? Answer: Problems faced by the cotton textile industry:

Question 20. Explain the main factors which are responsible for the concentration of jute mills along the banks of Hugli river. (2014 D, 2012 OD) Answer: Factors responsible for the concentration of jute industry on the banks of Hugli:

Question 21. Write down the major problems/challenges faced by the jute industry. Answer: The major challenges faced by the jute industry:

Question 22. What are the objectives of formulating National Jute Policy. In which year was this policy formulated? Do you think that the demand for jute products will pick up at global level and why? (2013 OD) Answer: National Jute Policy was formulated in 2005 with the following objectives:

Yes, the demand for jute products in the world market will grow. The growing global concern for environment friendly, biodegradable material, also led to the government policy of mandatory use of jute packing.

Question 23. Name some countries which are the main buyers of Indian jute products. Answer: The main buyers of Indian jute products are:

Question 24. Why are the sugar mills located close to the sugarcane fields? Or Why are sugar mills concentrated in sugarcane producing areas? (2016 D) Answer: Reasons for location of sugar mills close to the fields:

Question 25. Write the distribution of sugar industry in India. Answer: There are over 460 sugar mills in the country. Out of these, 60% mills are in Uttar Pradesh and Bihar. Rest of the mills are spread over Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Gujarat and Punjab.

Question 26. Why are sugar mills shifting and concentrating in southern and western State of India? Give reasons. (2012 D) Answer: Sugar Industry is shifting towards southern and western States, because:

Question 27. What are the major challenges faced by sugar industry? (2016 D) Answer: Challenges faced by the sugar industry:

Question 28. Why is iron and steel industry called the basic or key industry? Explain. (2012 OD) Answer:

Question 29. (a) Why is iron and steel industry called a heavy industry? Give reasons. (2012 OD) (b) Write four raw materials of iron and steel industry and the proportions in which they are required. Answer: (a) Iron and steel industry is a heavy industry because:

(b) The raw materials of iron and steel industry are:

Question 30. Describe India’s position in the world regarding production of steel and its consumption. Answer:

Question 31. Name the marketing body through which all public sector undertakings market their steel. Answer: Steel Authority of India Limited. (SAIL)

Question 32. What is the major difference between integrated steel plants and mini steel plants? (2011 D) Answer: An integrated steel plant is large and handles everything in one complex—from putting together raw materials in the blast furnace to steel making, rolling and shaping. An integrated steel plant uses a blast furnace and iron-ore as raw material. Mini steel plants are smaller, have electric furnaces, use steel scrap and sponge iron. They have re-rollers that use steel ingots also. They produce mild and alloy steel of given specifications.

Question 33. Why are most of the iron and steel industries concentrated in and around Chotanagpur Plateau Region? Give reasons. (2015 OD, 2014 D, 2012 OD) Answer: Reasons:

Question 34. What problems does the iron and steel industry in India face? (2011 OD, 2013 OD) Or, Why is India not able to perform to her full potential in iron and steel production? Explain. Answer: Inspite of being an important producer of iron and steel, India has not been able to exploit her complete potential, because of:

Question 35. What recent developments have led to a rise in the production capacity of the iron and steel industry? Answer:

Question 36. Write four characteristics and four major uses of aluminium. Answer: Four characteristics of aluminium:

Four uses (importance) of aluminium.

Question 37. How many aluminium smelting plants are set up in India? Write their distribution. Answer: There are eight aluminium smelting plants in the country. They are located in the states of Orissa (Nalco and Balco), West Bengal, Kerala, Uttar Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu. Together they produced 600 metric tonnes of aluminium in 2004.

Question 38. (a) Name the mineral used for obtaining aluminium. Write its one important characteristic by which it can be identified. (b) List two prime factors required for the location of an aluminium smelting plant. Answer: (a) Bauxite is the raw material used in aluminium industry. It can be identified by its dark reddish colour and bulky nature. (b) Two prime factors required for the location of aluminium melting plant are:

Question 39. Give reasons to highlight the importance of chemical industry in Indian economy. Answer: Importance of chemical industry:

Question 40. Name two groups into which the chemical industry is usually classified. What is the main difference in their locations over space and why? Answer: The two groups are:

Inorganic chemical industries are widely spread over the country because they use inorganic chemicals like sulphuric acid, nitric acid, alkalies, soda ash and caustic soda which can be transported anywhere. Organic chemical plants are located near oil refineries or petrochemical plants so these are located at specific locations.

Question 41. List five products each of inorganic and organic chemical industry. Answer: Products of

Question 42. Name four major groups of fertilizers produced in India. Answer: Main groups of fertilizers produced in India are:

Question 43. Name the fertilizers which India needs to import and why? Answer: Potash is entirely imported as India does not have any reserves of commercially usable potash or potassium compounds in any form.

Question 44. What is India’s position in the world with regard to the production of nitrogenous fertilizers? Answer: India is the 3rd largest producer of nitrogenous fertilizers, because:

Question 45. What is the main reason for the fertilizer industry to expand in several parts of the country? Name the states which together produce about 50% of the country’s fertilizers. Answer: After the Green Revolution, the fertilizer industry expanded to several parts because natural gas could be transported by pipelines to any desired location. States which produce about 50% of the fertilizers are:

Question 46. Name the important raw materials used in the manufacturing of cement. Answer: Raw materials used in cement industry are:

Question 47. Write down the locational factors of cement industry. Answer: Factors which affect location of cement industry are:

Question 48. What factors led to the rapid expansion of cement industry in India? Answer: Factors that led to rapid expansion of cement industry are:

Question 49. Why does Indian cement have a large demand in the international market and whom do we export to? Answer: Because of the good quality cement being produced in India, it has found a readily available market in South and East Asia, Middle East and Africa.

Question 50. Why has the automobile industry of India witnessed fast growth? Give reasons. Answer: Reasons for fast growth in automobile industry:

Question 51. “Electronic industry has revolutionized the life of the masses and the country’s economy.” Justify the statement with suitable arguments. Answer: Electronic industry has revolutionized the life of the people and the country’s economy because:

Question 52. Write the distribution of the electronics industry. Answer: Bangalore has emerged as the electronic capital of India. Other important centres for electronic goods are the four mega cities of Hyderabad, Pune, Lucknow and Coimbatore.

Question 53. What is a software technology park? How many such parks do we have? Name the technology park which is closest to Delhi. Answer: Software technology parks provide single window service and high data communication facility to software experts. We have 18 software technology parks. Noida Software Technology Park is the closest to Delhi.

Question 54. Explain how do industries cause air pollution. Answer: Air pollution is caused by the industries in the following ways:

Question 55. Write down the adverse effects of air pollution. Answer: Air pollution adversely affects:

Question 56. Suggest measures to control air pollution caused by industries. Answer: Measures to control air pollution: (i) Particulate matter in the air can be reduced by fitting smoke stacks to factories with fabric filters, electrostatic precipitators etc. (ii) Equipments to control aerosol emissions can be used in industries, e.g., electrostatic precipitators, scrubbers and inertial separators. (iii) Smoke can be reduced by using oil or gas instead of coal in factories.(a) How are water bodies polluted by industries?

(b) Give examples of industries which cause a lot of water pollution. (2013 D) (a)

(b) Major water polluting industries are:

Question 57. Suggest measures to control water pollution caused by industries. (2013 D) Answer:

Question 58. What is noise pollution? Write its effects on human health and suggest ways to reduce industrial noise pollution. Answer: Noise pollution: Unwanted loud noise is an irritant and a source of stress. Effects of noise pollution on human health:

Ways to reduce industrial noise pollution:

Question 59. How do industries pollute environment? Explain with five examples. (2013 D) Answer: The five types of industrial pollution are:

Question 61. Explain any five measures to control industrial pollution in India. Answer: Five measures to control industrial pollution:

Question 62. Explain the pro-active approach adopted by the National Thermal Power Corporation (NTPC) for preserving the natural environment and resources? (2011 OD, 2015 OD) Answer: NTPC is taking the following measures in places where it is setting up power plants:

Question 63. Suggest any three steps to minimise the environmental degradation caused by the industrial development in India. (2016 OD) Answer: Steps to minimize the environmental degradation caused by industrial development in India are:

Question 1. Why is transportation necessary? Answer: Transportation is necessary:

Question 2. What do you understand by means of transport? Write three important domains of the earth which are covered by them. Answer: Means of transport include all kinds of vehicles, trains, aeroplanes and ships. Means of transport are used for the movement of people, goods and services from one place to another. These are developed on three important domains of the earth, i.e., land, water and air. Based on these, transport can also be classified into land, water and air transport.

Question 3. Today the world has become a “global village”. Justify this statement. Answer: Today the world has become a “large village” because of:

These two functions, i.e. various means of transport and communication have reduced time and distance, have brought the world closer and the physical distances have become meaningless. For example, now trading from local levels has been extended to the international level and even financial transactions can take place round the world in no time. All this has been made possible because of efficient and quick means of transport and communication.

Question 4. “Modern means of transport and communication serve as lifelines of our nation.” Justify this statement by giving supportive arguments. Or “Efficient means of transport are prerequisites for the fast development of the country.” Express your views in favour of this statement. (2016 D, 2014 OD) Answer: India is well linked with the rest of the world despite its vast size and diversities because of efficient means of transport and communication. They are rightly called the lifelines or arteries of a nation because:

Question 5. Why do the movement of goods and services form one place to another require fast and efficient means of transport? Explain with examples. Answer: Transport plays an important role in the economy. Because of transport raw materials reach the factory and finished products reach to the consumer. The pace of development of a country depends upon the production of goods and services as well as their movement over space. Today the world has converted into a large village with the help of efficient and fast moving transport:

Question 6. How are means of transport and communication complementary to each other? Explain with three examples. (2013 OD) Answer:

Question 7. Examine with examples the role of means of transport and communication in making our life prosperous and comfortable. Answer: Transport and communication have a major role to play in making our lives prosperous and comfortable:

Question 8. Name three means of land transport and write one advantage of each. Answer: Three means of land transport:

Question 9. Why is road transport more useful than rail transport in India. Give reasons. (2016 OD, 2013 D) Or, “Roadways still have an edge over railways in India”. Give reasons. Answer: Roadways score over railways:

Question 10. Name six types of roads according to their capacity. Answer: Six types of roads:

Question 11. Write the characteristics of Super Highways, National Highways and State Highways. Answer: Super Highways:

Question 12. Differentiate between District Roads and Other Rural Roads? Answer: District Roads:

Question 13. What are ‘Border Roads’? What is their significance? Answer:

Question 14. Classify roads on the basis of the type of material used for their construction. Answer: Roads can be classified into two categories on the basis of material used: Metalled roads may be made of cement, concrete or bitumen. These are all-weather roads. Unmetalled roads are dusty and muddy tracks which go out of use in the rainy season.

Question 15. Define ‘road density’. What is the average road density in India? Name the states having the highest and lowest densities respectively. What is the main reason for this difference in their densities? (2013 D) Answer: Road density is defined as the length of road per 100 sq km, of area. Average road density of India is 75 kms / 100 sq kms of area (1996-97). Highest road density is in Kerala — It is 375 km / 100 sq kms. Least road density is in Jammu & Kashmir—It is 10 km / 100 sq kms. In Jammu & Kashmir, road density is less because of mountainous terrain, whereas Kerala has levelled nature of land coupled with agricultural development which supports a lot of population, therefore road density is higher.

Question 16. What are the problems faced by road transportation in India? (2013 D) Answer: Problems faced by road transportation:

Question 17. Why is the distribution of roads not uniform in India? Explain with examples. (2014 OD) Answer:

Question 18. Railways play an important role in Indian economy. Give supportive arguments. Or Explain the importance of railways as the principle mode of transportation for freight and passengers in India. (2015 OD) Answer:

Question 19. Describe the distribution of railway network in India. Answer:

Question 21. Which factors affect the distribution pattern of the railway network in the country? Answer: Factors that affect the distribution pattern of railway network in India:

Question 22. Analyse the physiographic and economic factors that have influenced the distribution pattern of the railway network in our country. (2015 D) Or, ‘The distribution pattern of Indian Railway network is influenced by the physiographic factors. Examine the statement. (2013 OD) Answer: Factors that affect the distribution pattern of railway network in India: (i) Physiographic factors. The Northern plains with vast level land, high population density and rich agricultural resources provide most favourable conditions for railway network. The nature of terrain and the number of rivers running through the region determine the density of railway network in that region. Mountains, marshy, sandy and forested areas have sparse network whereas plain areas have dense network of the railways. It was difficult to lay railway lines on the sandy plains of Western Rajasthan, swamps of Gujarat and forested tracks of Madhya Pradesh.

(ii) Economic factors. Regions which have rich resources and are economically more developed have denser network of railways in comparison to the regions with low economic development.

(iii) Administrative factors. The administrative and political decisions also affect the distribution of railway network in a region.

Question 23. List four factors which favoured the development of dense network of railways in the northern plains. (2012 OD) Answer: Four reasons for dense network of railways in northern plains are:

Question 24. State reasons for the sparse railway network in Himalayan region. Answer: Reasons for sparse railway network in Himalayas:

Question 25. Where is Konkan Railway Line developed in India and what problems are faced by it? Answer: Konkan Railway Line is developed along the western coast of India through the states of Maharashtra, Goa and Karnataka. This railway line has facilitated the movement of passengers and goods in this most important economic region of India. Problems faced during its construction:

Question 26. What are the problems faced by Indian Railways? Answer: Problems faced by the Indian Railways:

Question 27. Explain the improvements made by the Indian Railways in its functioning. (2012 OD) Answer:

Question 28. What are the advantages of pipeline transportation? Answer: Advantages of pipeline transportation:

Question 29. What made the location of inland oil refineries possible? Name any two inland oil refineries. Answer: Location of inland oil refineries was made possible because of pipeline transportation which links them with oilfields. Inland oil refineries are:

Question 30. Write about three most important networks of pipeline transportation. Answer: Important networks are:

Question 31. Write four merits of waterways in India. (2014 D) Answer:

Question 32. Mention any two inland waterways of India. Write three characteristics of each. (2017 D, 2011 OD) Answer: Two inland water ways are: (A) The Ganga river between Allahabad and Haldia: Characteristics:

(B) The Brahmaputra river between Sadiya and Dhubri: Characteristics:

Question 33. What are major seaports? Answer: Seaports which handle our foreign trade are called major seaports. These ports handle 95 per cent of India’s foreign trade.

Question 34. Name the northernmost and southernmost ports of eastern and western coast respectively. Answer: The northernmost port: of eastern coast — Kolkata of western coast — Kandla The southernmost port: of eastern coast — Tuticorin of western coast — Kochi

Question 35. Give an account of the major sea ports of India and their importance. (2011 D) Answer:

Question 36. Write four merits of air travel. Also mention any two demerits of air transport. (2012 OD, 2011 D) Answer: Merits of air travel.

Question 37. Why is air travel preferred in the north-eastern states? Give reasons. (2014 D, 2013 D) Answer: The north-eastern part of the country is marked with:

Under these difficult conditions, the road and rail transport is not well developed. Journey through land transport is very tiresome and time-consuming. So, for all these reasons, air travel is preferred in this part of the country, where special provisions are made to extend the services to common people at cheaper rates.

Question 38. Name four airline services which cater to the domestic air traffic. Answer: Domestic air services are:

Question 39. What are ‘Pawan Hans’ services? Write two purposes for which these services are used. Answer: The Pawan Hans Helicopter Ltd., a public sector undertaking, provides helicopter services to:

Question 40. Which is the ‘International Airline’ of India? Answer: ‘Air India’ handles our international traffic. It is a public sector undertaking. Jet and Kingfisher are examples of private airlines that fly to other countries as well.

Question 41. Name four cities where international airports are located and name these airports. Answer: Cities where international airports are located:

Question 42. Name the northernmost and southernmost international airport of India. Answer: Northern most international airport is Raja Sansi at Amritsar. Southern most international airport of India is situated in Tiruvanantapuram and is called Nedimbacherry Airport.

Question 43. What is the main difference between means of transport and means of communication? Answer: Means of transport: These are used for the movement of people, goods and services from one place to another, e.g. roadways, airways, etc. Means of communication: These are used for interchanging messages and ideas between people without physical movement of the communicator or receiver, e.g. letters, telephone, television, etc.

Question 44. Write two types of means of communication and give two examples of each. Answer: Two types of means of communication are: (i) Personal communication (ii) Mass communication. (i) Personal communication includes sending and receiving of messages between two individuals at a personal level. The important means in this category are telephone, post & telegraph services, fax, etc. (ii) Mass communication means communicating with several people (masses) at the same time. These are of two types:

Question 45. What are the functions performed by means of mass communication? Answer: Functions performed by means of mass communication:

Question 46. Explain the importance of ‘Radio’ and ‘Television’ as an effective means of mass communication in India. Answer: Because a large part of the population of our country is illiterate, the electronic media of mass communication i.e., Radio and T.V. play a very crucial role in:

stations and transmitters. T.V. It telecasts —

Question 47. Name the mail channels which were introduced by the Indian postal network to facilitate quick delivery of mails. What was the main purpose of this decision? (2014 D) Answer: Mail channels introduced by the Indian postal network are:

The main purpose is to facilitate quick delivery of mail to large towns and cities.

Question 48. “India has one of the largest telecom networks in Asia.” Justify this statement. Answer:

All this has been made possible by integrating the developments in space technology with communication technology and development of computers and internet. Recently a number of private companies have also entered into telecommunication area.

Question 49. Distinguish between first class mail and second class mail. Answer: Difference between Class mail and Second Class mail

Question 50. Write in brief about A.I.R. and Doordarshan. Answer: All India Radio (A.I.R. or Akashwani):

Question 51. Approximately in how many languages are newspapers published in India? Answer: Newspapers are published in about 100 languages and dialects. Largest number of newspapers published in India are in Hindi followed by English and Urdu.

Question 52. What is the status of feature film production in India? Answer:

Question 53. What is meant by trade? What is the difference between Local and State level trade? (2014 D) Answer: The exchange of goods and services among people, states and countries, through market channels, is referred to as trade. Local trade is carried in cities, towns and villages. State level trade is carried between two or more states.

Question 54. What is ‘international trade’? Answer: Exchange of goods (buying and selling of goods) between two countries is called international trade. It may take place through sea, air or land routes. Two components of international trade are — export and import.

Question 55. Why is international trade considered as an ‘economic barometer’ for a country? Or “Advancement of international trade of a country is an index to its prosperity.” Support the statement with suitable examples. (2014 OD) Answer: Exchange of goods (buying and selling of goods) between two countries is called international trade. It may take place through sea, air or land routes. It has two components—export and import.

Question 56. What is ‘balance of trade’? Explain its two types. Answer: The balance of trade of a country is the difference between its export and import value. Balance of trade is of two types:

Question 57. Write a note on the changing nature of international trade in India. Answer: International trade in India has undergone a substantial change in the last fifteen years. Liberalisation policies of government and lifting of barriers on trade has made it truly global in nature. India has trading relations with all major trading blocks and geographical regions of the world. In this day and age of globalisation, exchange of goods and commodities has been overtaken by the exchange of information and knowledge. India has proved to be a world leader in software technology and is earning large amounts of foreign exchange through the export of software technology.

Question 59. Why is ‘tourism’ considered as a trade and industry in India? Give reasons in support of your answer. (2015 OD, 2014 D) Answer:

Question 60. Give reasons for which foreign tourists visit India. (2014 D) Answer: Foreigners visit India for various purposes. These are:

The above mentioned are a few important questions for Class 10 Geography that are most probable to be repeated in the upcoming board exams. While preparing for the board exams, students can study accordingly by giving priority to the topics mentioned above.

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